My questions are similar to those of Tara and Alyssa. While to some degree I understand Kierkegaard's argument for Jesus's contemporaries being at a disadvantage, I am not sure if it is entirely plausible. Jesus did indeed reveal his divine nature (the Resurrection), so why would his contemporaries be at a disadvantage if he revealed his divine nature to them? Also I wonder how important the historical Jesus, and history in general is to Kierkegaard. Is what we claim to know (from the Bible) about the historical Jesus important? Or is it simply the moral message that is important (i.e. Spinoza)?
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